【全球聚看点】2022新高考全国I卷英语试题及答案解析最新

高考是每个人生命中一个重大的转折点，意味着人生的机遇与更广阔的天地。下面是小编为大家整理的2022新高考全国I卷英语试题及答案解析，仅供参考，喜欢可以收藏与分享哟!

2022新高考全国I卷英语试题及答案解析

(资料图片仅供参考)

2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试

英语

本试卷共 10页，满分 120分。考试用时 120分钟。

注意事项：1.答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、

考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用 2B铅笔将试卷

类型(A)填涂在答题卡相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡

右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听力，选择题从第二部

分的“阅读”开始，试题序号从“21”开始。

2.作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B铅笔把答题卡上对

应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑;如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，

再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。

3.非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在

答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上;如需改动，先划掉原

来的答案，然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液。

不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一

并交回。

第二部分阅读(共两节，满分 50分)

第一节(共 15小题;每小题 2.5分，满分 37.5分)

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature

Grading Scale

90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.

Essays (60%)

Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade

for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 =

20%.

Group Assignments (30%)

Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during

the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date

through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.

Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%)

Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to

complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned

readings or notes from the previous class’ lecture/discussion, so it is

important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time

I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be

completed at home, both of which will be graded.

Late Work

An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for

each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due

date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will

get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be

accepted.

21. Where is this text probably taken from?

A. A textbook.

B. An exam paper.

D. An academic article.

C. A course plan.

22. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of?

A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.

23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?

A. You will receive a zero.

C. You will be given a test.

B. You will lose a letter grade.

D. You will have to rewrite it.

B

Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The

arugula (芝麻菜 ) was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast

chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a

dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the

arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I

could have made six salads with what I threw out.

In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, “food waste

goes against the moral grain,” as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month’s

cover story. It’s jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away

— from “ugly” (but quite eatable) vegetables rejected by grocers to large

amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.

Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other

resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem.

In fact, Royte writes, “if food waste were a country, it would be the third

largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world.”

If that’s hard to understand, let’s keep it as simple as the arugula at the

back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time —

but for him, it’s more like 12 boxes of donated strawberries nearing their

last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C., which

recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more

than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished

(有瑕疵的) produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the

strawberries? Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in

meals down the road.

Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don’t think. “Everyone

can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food

than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not

include the side dish you won’t eat.” Curtin says.

24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?

A. We pay little attention to food waste.

B. We waste food unintentionally at times.

C. We waste more vegetables than meat.

D. We have good reasons for wasting food.

25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text?

A. Moral decline.

B. Environmental harm.

C. Energy shortage.

D. Worldwide starvation.

26. What does Curtin’s company do?

A. It produces kitchen equipment.

B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.

C. It helps local farmers grow fruits.

D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.

27. What does Curtin suggest people do?

A. Buy only what is needed.

B. Reduce food consumption.

C. Go shopping once a week.

D. Eat in restaurants less often.

C

The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given

hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.

The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce

loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being used to

help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care

homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in

use.

Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She

said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their

breakfast each morning before I went to school.

“I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning

letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone to bed.

“It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their

children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them.

I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something

useful.”

There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in

the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out

countrywide.

Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first

to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea of the

project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and

fun the project can bring to people here.”

Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy to be

taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a

shared interest and creative activities.”

28. What is the purpose of the project?

A. To ensure harmony in care homes.

B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.

C. To raise money for medical research.

D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.

29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?

A. She has learned new life skills.

B. She has gained a sense of achievement.

C. She has recovered her memory.

D. She has developed a strong personality.

30. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7?

A. Improve.

B. Oppose.

C. Begin.

D. Evaluate.

31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?

A. It is well received.

B. It needs to be more creative.

D. It takes ages to see the results.

C. It is highly profitable.

D

Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the

common “m” and “a” to the rare clicks of some southern African languages.

But why are certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking,

five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new

speech sounds that are now found in half the world’s languages.

More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech

sounds called labiodentals, such as “f” and “v”, were more common in the

languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by

Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and

why this trend arose.

They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human

adults were aligned (对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which

are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws

changed to an overbite structure (结构), making it easier to produce such

sounds.

The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the

development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to

chew at this point. The jawbone didn’t have to do as much work and so

didn’t grow to be so large.

Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global

change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use

of “f” and “v” increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years.

These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer

people today.

This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds

were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. “The

set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the

appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds

that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like

biological change and cultural evolution,” said Steven Moran, a member of

the research team.

32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi’s research

focus on?

A. Its variety.

B. Its distribution.

D. Its development.

C. Its quantity.

33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?

A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.

B. They could not open and close their lips easily.

C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.

D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.

34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?

A. Supporting evidence for the research results.

B. Potential application of the research findings.

C. A further explanation of the research methods.

D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.

35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?

A. It is key to effective communication.

B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.

C. It is a complex and dynamic system.

D. It drives the evolution of human beings.

第二节(共 5小题;每小题 2.5分，满分 12.5分)

阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选

项中有两项为多余选项。

Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled “Five Reasons to Thank

Your Workout Partner.” One reason was: “You’ll actually show up if you

know someone is waiting for you at the gym,” while another read: “ 36 ”

With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a

subtle (微妙) competition.

So, how do you find a workout partner?

First of all, decide what you want from that person.

37

Or do you

just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility?

Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.

You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media,

but it probably won’t result in a useful response. If you plan on

38

working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.

My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her

notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a

week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age.

It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone

number.

39

You and your partner will probably have different skills.

40

Over

time, both of you will benefit — your partner will be able to lift more

weights and you will become more physically fit. The core (核心) of your

relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.

A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.

B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.

C. You’ll work harder if you train with someone else.

D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?

E. How can you write a good “seeking training partner” notice?

F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.

G. Any notice for a training partner should include such information.

第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分 30分)

第一节(共 15小题;每小题 1分，满分 15分)

阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入

空白处的最佳选项。

My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping

experiences over the past ten years.

Some of our

41

are funny, especially from the early years when

along Chalk Creek. I was

our children were little. Once, we

42

43

that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek (小溪). I tied a rope

around his waist to keep him near to our spot. That lasted about ten minutes.

He was

44 , and his crying let the whole campground know it. So

45

tying him up, I just kept a close eye on him. It

in the creek. My three-year-old, however, did.

46

— he didn’t end up

Another time, we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear

when we 47 , but storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one

our peaceful morning trip. The picked up and

thunder rolled. My husband stopped fishing to the motor. Nothing.

He tried again. No 51 . We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a

dead motor. As we all sat there 52 , a fisherman pulled up, threw us a

quickly

48

49

50

rope and towed (拖) us back. We were 53 . Now, every year when my

husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are filled with a sense of

54 , wondering what camping fun and

55

we will experience next.

41. A. ideas

B. jokes

C. memories

C. walked

D. discoveries

D. cycled

42. A. camped

43. A. annoyed

44. A. unhurt

45. A. due to

46. A. worked

B. drove

B. surprised

B. unfortunate

B. instead of

B. happened

C. disappointed

C. uncomfortable

C. apart from

C. mattered

D. worried

D. unafraid

D. as for

D. changed

D. headed off

D. recorded

D. speed

47. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out

48. A. arranged B. interrupted

C. completed

C. temperature

C. start

49. A. wind

50. A. find

51. A. luck

B. noise

B. hide

D. fix

B. answer

C. wonder

C. doubtfully

C. safe

D. signal

52. A. patiently B. tirelessly

D. helplessly

D. right

53. A. sorry

54. A. relief

55. A. failure

B. brave

B. duty

C. pride

D. excitement

D. conflict

B. adventure

C. performance

第二节(共 10小题;每小题 1.5分，满分 15分)

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant

Panda National Park (GPNP).

size of Yellowstone National Park, the GPNP will be one of the first

national parks in the country. The plan will extend protection to a

significant number of areas that (be) previously unprotected,

bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one

56

(cover) an area about three times

57

58

authority

59

(increase) effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in

management

After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next

year. The GPNP (design) to reflect the guiding principle of

“protecting the authenticity and integrity (完整性) of natural ecosystems,

preserving biological diversity, protecting ecological buffer zones,

leaving behind precious natural assets (资产) for future generations”. The

GPNP’s main goal is to improve connectivity between separate

60

61

62

(population) and homes of giant pandas, and

desired level of population in the wild.

63

(eventual) achieve a

Giant pandas also serve

64

an umbrella species (物种)，bringing

protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and

northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger

protection for all the species

65

live within the Giant Panda Range and

significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area.

第四部分写作(共两节，满分 40分)

第一节(满分 15分)

假定你是校广播站英语节目 “Talk and Talk”的负责人李华，请给外教

Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。内容包括：

1.节目介绍;

2.访谈的时间和话题。

注意：

1.写作词数应为 80左右;

2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

Dear Caroline,

Yours sincerely,

Li Hua

第二节(满分 25分)

阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇

完整的短文。

It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different

primary schools in and around the small town were warming up and

walking the route (路线) through thick evergreen forest.

I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself

off to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy

smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn’t with the

other children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run.

What was wrong? He had worked so hard for this event!

I quickly searched the crowd for the school’s coach and asked him what

had happened. “I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at

him,” he explained uncomfortably. “I gave him the choice to run or not, and

let him decide.”

I bit back my frustration (懊恼 ). I knew the coach meant well — he

thought he was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could

run if he wanted, I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body

rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward.

David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running

like other children, but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular

kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were

doing. That was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had

decided to join the cross-country team. It just took him longer — that’s all.

David had not missed a single practice, and although he always finished his

run long after the other children, he did always finish. As a special education

teacher at the school, I was familiar with the challenges David faced and was

proud of his strong determination.

注意：

1.续写词数应为 150左右;

2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me.

I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners.

2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试

参考答案

第二部分阅读

21. C

26. D

31. A

36. C

22. B

27. A

32. D

37. D

23. A

28. D

33. C

38. B

24. B

29.B

25. B

30. C

35. C

40. F

34. A

39. G

第三部分语言运用

41. C 42. A

46. A 47. D

51. A 52. D

56. Covering

43. D

44. C

45. B

50. C

55. B

48. B

53. C

49. A

54. D

57. the

58. were

59. to increase

60. is designed

61. and

62. populations

63. eventually

64. as 65. that

高考备考方法

高考备考要坚强

要知道你是作为高考的考生，你现在的使命就是要为你的明天，为了你的理想奋斗，积极向上，不断地进步。在高考备考中，需要坚强地拿出你的勇气来克服高考中的，疲惫，无趣，痛苦，要有屡战屡败，屡败屡战的精神，这样才可以见到，新的光明，结出理想之花。不要轻易地放弃，要对自己的理想坚定不移，要把你的执着和顽强，运用到高考备考当中。

高考备考要科学

好好地备考，要运用最有效率，最科学的方法，踏踏实实地备考

高考要规范，注重每一个细节。

无论是从答题或是备考之中，一定要规范，要按照要求，他有什么要求，你就跟着他去做，跟着要求走，你就不会跑偏，要认真审题。另外注重细节，不要对简单的题目产生大意。

高考提分攻略

明确高考要考什么

想要高考取得成功，就要知道高考要考什么，正所谓知己知彼，百战百胜，首先你要知道它考什么?你要明确到高考究竟要考什么知识点?高考的要求是什么?题目难度对于自己来说怎么样?才能更好的进行备考。另外你要根据实际制定你的目标，你的目标是什么?有了目标才有动力，才可以根据你自己的实际情况去跟进，去努力进步。

高考考的是心理素质

用以往的经验来说，身边有很多同学，平时成绩很好的，但是一到大考，却往往不理想，这是为什么呢?大多数落榜的同学往往是因为心理素质的问题，有所欠缺，还没有认识到心理素质在高考之中，也是很重要的。除了平常的知识点复习以外，也要注意自己心理的状况。平时压力大就要学会及时宣泄抒发。平时要加强锻炼自己的抗压能力，抗挫折能力。考差了不要紧，要分析原因，找漏洞和短板，如果考好了，不要骄傲，要谦虚的学习，跟不断地进步。

注重高考的策略和技巧

其实不是每一个人都是可以把所有知识点掌握，然后去考试的。但是为什么有的人平时并不是很厉害，但往往考试会得到比较高的分数呢?那是因为他们有自己的一些，复习备考的技巧，还有应试的一些技巧。他们知道怎样复习可以提高效率。他们知道自己的短板的长处在哪里，根据实际的试卷情况，去制定一些他们应试做题的策略。比如一些综合科目是很难做完的，所以就从易到难，能得分的题目不失分，可以得分题目稳得分，难的题目尽量得分。

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